Istanbul Drill

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gerhard1

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Doesn't the Oklahoma self-defense statutes require imminent danger to the lawful defender before deadly force can be legally employed? I thought they did but I can't find the statute.
 

gerhard1

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I believe it's fear of death or great bodily harm to yourself or others.
Agreed: this is a requirement, but you seem to have misunderstood the question. Does the statute require the deadly peril be imminent before deadly force is allowed? For example, you have good reason to believe that someone intends to kill you in the future. Most states (Kansas, for example) specifically require that the danger be immediate and would not allow a deadly response. Why? Because in that instance, the police can intervene, thus negating the need for self-defense. So the question I asked is about any requirement in Oklahoma that a deadly threat be imminent.

I tried to look it up but so far, no joy.
 

gerhard1

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Doesn't the Oklahoma self-defense statutes require imminent danger to the lawful defender before deadly force can be legally employed? I thought they did but I can't find the statute.

In post #45, I failed to highlight the word 'imminent'. Perhaps this caused some confusion. Sorry about that.
 

gerhard1

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Yes. The threat must be imminent.
I believe so as well, but for some reason, I couldn't find it in the statutes. Could you perhaps give me a hint as to where?

All right, then, assuming that imminent danger is required, how is the Istanbul drill legal? It strikes me as being next-to-impossible for folks like us to justify.
 

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