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The Range
Law & Order
Why The Prefatory Clause In The 2A?
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<blockquote data-quote="SMS" data-source="post: 1093742" data-attributes="member: 42"><p>I think you already said it...back then, the "militia" was "the people" and more specifically all able bodied men. </p><p></p><p>One of the key things the Supreme Court is supposed to do when faced with a Constitutional question is look at the <em>intent</em> of the document and read the text using the meaning of the words <em>at</em> the time the document was written. (that's why elections matter, all the McCain haters should be kicking themselves right now...as Obama prepares for his <em>second</em> Supreme Court nomination in less than two years)</p><p></p><p>Obviously militia has a different meaning to people today than it did hundreds of years ago....but anyone who tries to use that opening clause as an argument against a universal right is a mental midget.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="SMS, post: 1093742, member: 42"] I think you already said it...back then, the "militia" was "the people" and more specifically all able bodied men. One of the key things the Supreme Court is supposed to do when faced with a Constitutional question is look at the [I]intent[/I] of the document and read the text using the meaning of the words [I]at[/I] the time the document was written. (that's why elections matter, all the McCain haters should be kicking themselves right now...as Obama prepares for his [I]second[/I] Supreme Court nomination in less than two years) Obviously militia has a different meaning to people today than it did hundreds of years ago....but anyone who tries to use that opening clause as an argument against a universal right is a mental midget. [/QUOTE]
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