2.5 years.
12 O.S. 95 establishes the statute of limitations for all but real estate actions. Five years, for a contract in writing (3 for an oral contract). Does your sales contract specifically state that it's in compliance with the relevant traffic laws?
If not, you're probably trying to bring a negligence action. The limit is two years.
At the end of the day, even if you had a legit case (which is questionable), you'd be time-barred.
I despise tort law and hate myself for asking this question but.... when does the cause of action (mentioned in that 12 O.S. 95) accrue? Is there a reasonable man standard?