Has anyone called them to just ask? They have to post it so im sure there is a sign
Check out the original post.
Has anyone called them to just ask? They have to post it so im sure there is a sign
Nothing contained in any provision of this subsection shall be construed to authorize or allow any person in control of any place described in paragraph 1, 2, 3, 5 or 6 of subsection A of this section to establish any policy or rule that has the effect of prohibiting any person in lawful possession of a concealed handgun license from possession of a handgun allowable under such license in places described in paragraph 1, 2, 3, or 4 of this subsection.
So not to be a dick, but can anyone show me where this part appears? I found it at http://www.handgunlaw.us/states/oklahoma.pdf
but the site of Oklahoma statutes they link back to doesn't seem to actually have this section.
http://oklegal.onenet.net/oklegal-cgi/get_statute?99/Title.21/21-1277.html
Really looking for this information not trying to stir things up.
Thanks
That site hasn't been updated in several years. The official source for Oklahoma Statutes (as well as Oklahoma Supreme Court, Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals, and Oklahoma Court of Civil Appeals) is at http://www.oscn.net/applications/oscn/start.asp?viewType=LIBRARY
With the current form of that statute here: http://www.oscn.net/applications/oscn/DeliverDocument.asp?citeid=466200
OKC owns the property and has clearly deemed it a park and/or fairground.
A lease doesn't change ownership or the designation, IMHO, therefore the SDA applies and their signs do not have the force of law behind them. I carry at the fair.
you mean. . .somebody to a) brandish a firearm and then b) refuse request to leave, and, as a result c) spend $XX,XXX to get a case law saying a legal activity is legal?
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